"Separation of church and state" is not the opposite of "communist." Pro-tip: don't mix a disproven economic theory with a tenet of the U.S. version of personal freedom.
You might wonder, as I do, what the Spanish Constitution says about freedom of religion, in this case the priest's freedom to act as a Cathollc priest. You might also won…
"Separation of church and state" is not the opposite of "communist." Pro-tip: don't mix a disproven economic theory with a tenet of the U.S. version of personal freedom.
You might wonder, as I do, what the Spanish Constitution says about freedom of religion, in this case the priest's freedom to act as a Cathollc priest. You might also wonder, as I do, if there is any Spanish legal precedent on conflict of rights.
This looks to me like the start of an ongoing story, which will continue until there is a conclusion to R. vs. Malanza, if that's what the Spanish would call it.
"1. Freedom of ideology, religion and worship of individuals and communities is guaranteed, with no other restriction on their expression than may be necessary to maintain public order as protected by law.
2. No one may be compelled to make statements regarding his or her ideology, religion or beliefs.
3. No religion shall have a state character. The public authorities shall take into account the religious beliefs of Spanish society and shall consequently maintain appropriate cooperation relations with the Catholic Church and other confessions"
CHAPTER IV Guarantee of Fundamental Rights and Freedoms | Section 53
"The rights and freedoms recognized in Chapter 2 of the present Part are binding on all public authorities. Only by an act which in any case must respect their essential content, could the exercise of such rights and freedoms be regulated, which shall be protected in accordance with the provisions of section 161(1) a)."
"Separation of church and state" is not the opposite of "communist." Pro-tip: don't mix a disproven economic theory with a tenet of the U.S. version of personal freedom.
You might wonder, as I do, what the Spanish Constitution says about freedom of religion, in this case the priest's freedom to act as a Cathollc priest. You might also wonder, as I do, if there is any Spanish legal precedent on conflict of rights.
This looks to me like the start of an ongoing story, which will continue until there is a conclusion to R. vs. Malanza, if that's what the Spanish would call it.
Thank you. Agreed. Wasn't mixing. Just marrying 2 questions/statements up side-by-side. Came off confusing. Yep, definitely two different things
Wonder no more:
CHAPTER II Rights and freedoms | Section 16
"1. Freedom of ideology, religion and worship of individuals and communities is guaranteed, with no other restriction on their expression than may be necessary to maintain public order as protected by law.
2. No one may be compelled to make statements regarding his or her ideology, religion or beliefs.
3. No religion shall have a state character. The public authorities shall take into account the religious beliefs of Spanish society and shall consequently maintain appropriate cooperation relations with the Catholic Church and other confessions"
CHAPTER IV Guarantee of Fundamental Rights and Freedoms | Section 53
"The rights and freedoms recognized in Chapter 2 of the present Part are binding on all public authorities. Only by an act which in any case must respect their essential content, could the exercise of such rights and freedoms be regulated, which shall be protected in accordance with the provisions of section 161(1) a)."
https://www.lamoncloa.gob.es/lang/en/espana/leyfundamental/Paginas/titulo_primero.aspx
But in communism, there is no separation of church & state. That was my point... nothing more