Possibly. The court wasn't ruling against the bishop refusing to *ordain* the woman, only against him refusing to allow her into the classes for deacons and deacons' wives. Clearly the purpose of the class was not something the court considered relevant.
I wonder if the same ruling applies to other religions?
Possibly. The court wasn't ruling against the bishop refusing to *ordain* the woman, only against him refusing to allow her into the classes for deacons and deacons' wives. Clearly the purpose of the class was not something the court considered relevant.